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Can the government MAKE you wear any specific item of clothing?

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  • vmax

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    DK Firearms
     

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    Axxe55

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    Not going to argue the benefit of wearing a mask but technically what violation of law would one be violating if outside on a public street, within 6 feet of others and not wearing a mask? To be in violation of a law there must be a law.

    Exactly. There has to be a law in place, before a law can be violated.
     

    etmo

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    does the government have the authority / power to compel you to wear any type or individual piece of clothing?

    Yes. Why does the governor have that power? Because you gave it to him, in 1975.

    gdr_11 has it right above where he said, "The local and state governments have been allowed by voters to reach the point where they think that they are accountable to no one." (empahsis mine)

    Axe55 said, "Exactly. There has to be a law in place, before a law can be violated."

    And there is. Because of what Texas voters allowed (through their elected representatives) in 1975.
    In 1975, Texas passed the Texas Disaster Act, which replaced the Texas Civil Protection Act of 1951. Probably seemed like a decent idea at the time, but to get to the point, may I present to you

    Sec. 418.012. EXECUTIVE ORDERS. Under this chapter, the governor may issue executive orders, proclamations, and regulations and amend or rescind them. Executive orders, proclamations, and regulations have the force and effect of law.

    Boom. Since 1975, Any executive order by the Governor, once a declaration of disaster has been made, is immediately law. So yes, Abbott could say you need to smack yourself in the face with a whipped cream pie, and it would be law, as long as this covid disaster declaration endures. That's power, folks.

    Gotta be careful who ya vote for -- elections have consequences. Kinda late to start whining about it now; we've had 35 years to get rid of it and haven't lifted a finger.
     

    rotor

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    Yes. Why does the governor have that power? Because you gave it to him, in 1975.

    gdr_11 has it right above where he said, "The local and state governments have been allowed by voters to reach the point where they think that they are accountable to no one." (empahsis mine)

    Axe55 said, "Exactly. There has to be a law in place, before a law can be violated."

    And there is. Because of what Texas voters allowed (through their elected representatives) in 1975.
    In 1975, Texas passed the Texas Disaster Act, which replaced the Texas Civil Protection Act of 1951. Probably seemed like a decent idea at the time, but to get to the point, may I present to you



    Boom. Since 1975, Any executive order by the Governor, once a declaration of disaster has been made, is immediately law. So yes, Abbott could say you need to smack yourself in the face with a whipped cream pie, and it would be law, as long as this covid disaster declaration endures. That's power, folks.

    Gotta be careful who ya vote for -- elections have consequences. Kinda late to start whining about it now; we've had 35 years to get rid of it and haven't lifted a finger.
    That clarifies it. Thanks.
     

    gdr_11

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    etmo's post is right on. How many times has a bill or law change been proposed and passed by the Legislature or by the voters under the guise of health, safety, security or the environment and then come back to bite us in the butt. The biggest examples of course are at the Federal level with FEMA and Homeland Security, but most states have allowed similar laws to be slipped in and then used years later for a purpose they were never intended for (or at least the voters never intended it that way.
     
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