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  • txinvestigator

    TGT Addict
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    May 28, 2008
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    Ft Worth, TX
    Yep the hair test is for real man. Look as the law states if your “friend” gets popped for weed in Texas and has a gun with him may very well be in deep sheet. Until the Fed Gov decriminalized pot it’s going to be an issue in most every state. I suspect this will all change in the near future.
    No shit a hair test is real. He is pulling our legs because it is absurd to think that a prosecutor would run a test to try to prove some case of buying a gun as a user, especially since it is a federal law not prosecuted by state prosecutors
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    x12aesq

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    Jul 18, 2009
    96
    11
    On US 77 kind of north of I-10
    No, it doesn't. It means that if you do not have an LTC and are carrying in a vehicle or watercraft you lose the non-applicability under 46.02 and can be charged under UCW.

    Does not apply to carry under an LTC.

    You are correct; I mis-cited the statute. 46.02 (a-1) (A) is an incomplete citation. 46.02 (a-1) (1) does speak to conditions that remove the non-applicability for LTC holders, as you say. 46.02 (a-1) (2) (A) is the section having to do with carrying while engaging in criminal activity.
     

    txinvestigator

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    May 28, 2008
    14,204
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    Ft Worth, TX
    You are correct; I mis-cited the statute. 46.02 (a-1) (A) is an incomplete citation. 46.02 (a-1) (1) does speak to conditions that remove the non-applicability for LTC holders, as you say. 46.02 (a-1) (2) (A) is the section having to do with carrying while engaging in criminal activity.
    And only applies to carry without an LTC and while in a a motor vehicle or watercraft.;)
     

    LminusV

    Active Member
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    6   0   0
    Dec 24, 2010
    245
    11
    Georgetown
    The OP's question concerned consumption of an illegal drug and having an LTC but it got me thinking. How do the Government and Penal Codes apply to a person who is legally prescribed and properly takes drugs such as antidepressants, opioids, sedatives or tranquilizers? Would they be prevented from buying or even possessing a firearm? Is there a set standard in which someone could be declared intoxicated for taking a prescription drug as directed?
    I apologize if I strayed from the original topic but have always wondered about the answers to these questions.
     
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